Skip to content

9708 · 11.1

Policies to correct disequilibrium in the balance of payments — practice questions

Practice and worked examples for 9708 Policies to correct disequilibrium in the balance of payments. Short previews only — attempt the full question in MarkScheme against the official scheme.

Worked example 1

Country A has a persistent current account deficit of 5% of GDP. Its currency is fixed but under pressure. PEDx = 0.8 and PEDm = 0.6. Inflation is 3% and unemployment is at the NAIRU.

Evaluate devaluation as a policy to correct the deficit. [12 marks]

Show solution outline

Marshall–Lerner check: PEDx + PEDm = 0.8 + 0.6 = 1.4 > 1 → condition satisfied → devaluation should eventually improve trade balance in volume terms.

Mechanism (expenditure-switching):

  • Devaluation → exports cheaper abroad, imports dearer domestically.
  • If volumes respond elastically enough, X rises, M falls → deficit narrows.

Arguments supporting devaluation:

  • PED sum > 1 — technically effective medium term.
  • Unemployment at NAIRU — economy not in recession, can absorb any temporary disruption.
  • Corrects overvaluation that may have caused deficit.

Arguments against / limitations:

  • J-curve: deficit may worsen initially — import prices rise immediately; export contracts fixed in foreign currency.
  • Inflation at 3%: devaluation adds cost-push pressure — imported raw materials dearer → SRAS left → inflation rises further.
  • PEDx only 0.8: export response may be weak if goods are low-value-added or face strong competition.
  • Fixed rate: devaluation breaks peg — credibility loss, may trigger speculative outflows.
  • Retaliation: trading partners may devalue or impose barriers.

Alternatives:

  • Supply-side productivity improvements — less inflationary.
  • Expenditure-reducing — inappropriate with unemployment already at NAIRU (would cause recession).

Judgement: Devaluation can work given Marshall–Lerner satisfied, but inflation risk is significant — may need monetary tightening to anchor expectations, creating internal trade-offs.

Worked example 2

The economy of Econland has a current account deficit of $80 billion. The government believes this is due to excessive aggregate demand. The marginal propensity to save (MPS) is 0.2, the marginal propensity to tax (MPT) is 0.1, and the marginal propensity to import (MPM) is 0.3. The government decides to implement an expenditure-reducing policy by cutting its spending by $50 billion. Calculate the final current account deficit after this policy change.

Show solution outline

Step 1: Calculate the Marginal Propensity to Withdraw (MPW) This is the proportion of any change in income that is withdrawn from the circular flow. MPW = MPS + MPT + MPM MPW = 0.2 + 0.1 + 0.3 = 0.6

Step 2: Calculate the multiplier (k) The multiplier shows the total change in national income resulting from an initial change in injections. k = 1 / MPW k = 1 / 0.6 = 1.667 (or 5/3)

Step 3: Calculate the total change in National Income (ΔY) The cut in government spending (ΔG) is a withdrawal, so the change in injections (ΔJ) is -$50 billion. ΔY = ΔJ × k ΔY = -$50 billion × (5/3) = -$83.33 billion National income will fall by $83.33 billion.

Step 4: Calculate the change in Import Spending (ΔM) The fall in national income reduces spending on imports, determined by the MPM. ΔM = ΔY × MPM ΔM = -$83.33 billion × 0.3 = -$25 billion Import spending will fall by $25 billion.

Step 5: Calculate the new current account deficit The fall in imports directly improves the current account balance. Initial Deficit = $80 billion Improvement = $25 billion New Deficit = Initial Deficit - Improvement New Deficit = $80 billion - $25 billion = $55 billion

Final Answer: The new current account deficit is $55 billion. This expenditure-reducing policy has successfully narrowed the deficit, but at the cost of a significant contraction in national income.