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9708 · 7.3

Efficiency and market failure — FAQ

Frequently asked questions for 9708 Efficiency and market failure. Direct answers first, then deeper explanation — then practise with marking.

Can a firm be productively efficient but not allocatively efficient?

Yes, this is a common scenario. A profit-maximising monopoly, for instance, may achieve productive efficiency by producing its output at the lowest possible average cost. However, it will restrict output and set a price significantly higher than its marginal cost (P > MC) to maximise profits. This violates the condition for allocative efficiency, meaning consumers are not getting the quantity of the good they desire at a price that reflects its production cost.

Does market failure always mean the government should intervene?

Not necessarily. While market failure provides a strong justification for government intervention, the intervention itself might not lead to a better outcome. 'Government failure' can occur, where intervention leads to a worse allocation of resources than the free market. This can be due to imperfect information, political self-interest, high administrative costs, or unintended consequences. Therefore, the potential for government failure must be weighed against the severity of the market failure.

Is deadweight loss just a transfer of wealth from consumers to producers?

No, this is a critical misconception. A transfer of wealth, for example when a monopoly raises its price, involves consumer surplus being converted into producer surplus (profit). A deadweight loss, however, is a net loss to society as a whole. It is potential consumer and producer surplus that simply vanishes – it is not captured by anyone. It represents transactions that would have been beneficial for both buyer and seller but did not occur due to market inefficiency.